Hi,
I have found two wrong translations in mentioned in course [Spanish 1| Level 9] :
¿están listos? - are you ready? (plural formal)
¿están listos para pedir? - are you ready to order?
I think that proper spanish sentense should be:
¿estás listo? and ¿estás listo para pedir?
or
¿estáis listos? and ¿estáis listos para pedir?
The given translations are just fine for plural formal. And formal is what you would expect in a restaurant situation.
Your translations would also be OK for
singular informal: ¿estás listo? and ¿estás listo para pedir?
or plural informal: ¿estáis listos? and ¿estáis listos para pedir?
And singular formal would be:¿está listo? and ¿está listo para pedir?
but estan means > they, so why it is ok by you?
i am beginner and what to understand that 
No, están is not just used for they but also for you plural formal.
And third person singular declension is not only used for he and she but also for you formal
For example here is the present for the verb hablar:
yo hablo
tú hablas
él / ella /usted habla
nosotros hablamos
vosotros habláis
ellos / ellas/ ustedes hablan
Because Spanish usually leaves out the pronouns that can leave room for different interpretations. So your sentences can both mean: Are you ready (to order)? or Are they ready (to order)?
Hi @netmajor,
Thank you for your question. As @duaal has very well explained, están is both “they are” and “you are” (formal). Therefore, “¿están listos para pedir?” would be “are you ready to order?” in a formal way of address. Would it help to have “están” introduced first as a single lexical item? Thanks!
Best,
Ángela
Yes, It will be great. And additional description that estan in this situation is used as “you are” (formal)
“me lo paso bien jugando al fútbolI” - “I have a good time playing football”
Why are you translating a present tense by a past tense?
My answer was “me lo pasa bien jugando al fútbol”
Hi @Somelauw,
“Me lo paso” is present tense, 1st person singular (so it’s right). “Me lo pasa” does not exist in Spanish and, if anything, “pasa” is third person singular, so you could say “se lo pasa bien jugando al fútbol” (he/ she has a good time playing football). I hope it makes sense now!
Best,
Ángela
Thanks, I misunderstood this expression. Now I think “I had a good time playing” would be “Me lo pasaba bien”.
Hi @angileptol,
Some help needed, please.
In the five phrases at the end of Level 33 of Spanish (Spain) 3, “this afternoon” comes at the end of the phrase but “today” and “tonight” both come at the start of the phrase. Is this a ‘hard’ rule? Is there a good way to remember it? Would a phrase including, say, either “this morning” or “this week” be treated the same way as “this afternoon” (ie come at the start of the phrase)?
Also, in Level 37, could you add an alternative answer for the plural of “will you be back before or after dinner”?
Thanks!
I think there is a mistake in the following sentence
he is allergic to nuts.
es alérgico a los frutos secos
When I was learning the sentence, it was es alérgico a las nueces. but when I was reviewing it a second ago, it corrected me with a los frutos secos, probably dried fruits.
Similarly nuts changed from las nueces to los frutos secos.
It is in the course Spanish (Spain) 2 Level 12 Getting Fed.
@OguzIncedalipb2 That’s because “las nueces” was the wrong translation for nuts, and it was corrected to “los frutos secos”, about two weeks ago…
So what I understand is that la nuez is specifically walnut, nut a general name for all the nuts. Los frutos secos refer to the entire collection of nuts. Is this correct?
I think my confusion was the direct translation to English, dried fruits. Although a direct translation to my native language, Turkish, would get me the right answer. Funny.
Yes, that’s correct.
Hi @alanh!
Thank you for your question. If you notice, the phrases with “this afternoon” are both questions, so it’s kind of weird to start a question with the adverbial of time, although it would not be incorrect. Generally the position of adverbials in Spanish is quite flexible, so placing it at the end of the sentence is perfectly correct, it always depends on where you want to place the stress, if in the fact that this is done “today/this week” or on the actual action. I hope it makes more sense! 
I have added it!
Best,
Ángela
Hi @OguzIncedalipb2!
Yes, that is correct. For “nuez” we understand “walnut”, “frutos secos” is more accurate, although it also refers to dried fruits.
Best,
Ángela
Thanks Ángela. I should have spotted that those two were questions! 
Spanish (Spain) 5: “It might snow this evening” ==> “puede que nieve esta noche”
The italicized transliteration says “it-can that it-snows this night”. But the accepted response has the noun “nieve” instead of the verb “nieva”/“it-snows”.
The accepted response and the transliteration differ. Which one is correct???
Thanks,
Farrell
“Nieve” is not a noun here, it is presente de subjuntivo of the verb “nevar”.